(Oct-2025) Latest 350-401 Dumps for Success in Actual Cisco Certified
Changing the Concept of 350-401 Exam Preparation 2025
Cisco 350-401 ENCOR exam is the core exam that is required for obtaining the Cisco Certified Specialist - Enterprise Core certification. Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) certification is intended for IT professionals who are looking to build a career in enterprise networking. Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) certification is recognized globally and is highly valued by employers. It is an excellent way to demonstrate your expertise in implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?
- A. R3(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200
- B. R4(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200
- C. R3(config-router)neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200
- D. R4(config-router)nighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200
Answer: B
Explanation:
Local preference is an indication to the AS about which path has preference to exit the AS in order to reach a certain network. A path with a higher local preference is preferred. The default value for local preference is 100.
Unlike the weight attribute, which is only relevant to the local router, local preference is an attribute that routers exchange in the same AS. The local preference is set with the "bgp default local-preference value" command.
In this case, both R3 & R4 have exit links but R4 has higher local-preference so R4 will be chosen as the preferred exit point from AS 200.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Refer to the exhibit.
The administrator troubleshoots an EtherChannel that keeps moving to err-disabled. Which two actions must be taken to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
- A. Ensure that the neighbor interfaces of Gi1/0/2 and Gi/0/3 are configured as members of the same EtherChannel
- B. Ensure that interfaces Gi1/0/2 and Gi1/0/3 connect to the same neighboring switch.
- C. Reload the switch to force EtherChannel renegotiation
- D. Ensure that the switchport parameters of Port channel1 match the parameters of the port channel on the neighbor switch
- E. Ensure that the corresponding port channel interface on the neighbor switch is named Port-channel1.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Causes of Errdisable
This feature was first implemented in order to handle special collision situations in which the switch detected excessive or late collisions on a port. Excessive collisions occur when a frame is dropped because the switch encounters 16 collisions in a row. Late collisions occur after every device on the wire should have recognized that the wire was in use. Possible causes of these types of errors include:
* A cable that is out of specification (either too long, the wrong type, or defective)
* A bad network interface card (NIC) card (with physical problems or driver problems)
* A port duplex misconfiguration
A port duplex misconfiguration is a common cause of the errors because of failures to negotiate the speed and duplex properly between two directly connected devices (for example, a NIC that connects to a switch). Only half-duplex connections should ever have collisions in a LAN. Because of the carrier sense multiple access (CSMA) nature of Ethernet, collisions are normal for half duplex, as long as the collisions do not exceed a small percentage of traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue and executes a traceoute. What does the result confirm?
- A. The probe timed out
- B. The destination port is unreachable
- C. The destination server reported it is too busy
- D. The protocol is unreachable
Answer: A
Explanation:
When executing a traceroute command, if the result shows asterisks (*) for a hop, it indicates that the probe sent did not receive a reply within the expected time frame, usually meaning that the probe timed out. In this scenario, since the last line of the traceroute output shows "3 10.10.10.1 * * *", it confirms that the probe sent to this hop has timed out.
In Cisco routers, the codes for a traceroute command reply are:
! - success* - time outN - network unreachableH - host unreachableP - protocol unreachableA - admin deniedQ - source quench received (congestion)? - unknown (any other ICMP message)In Cisco routers, the codes for a traceroute command reply are:
! - success* - time outN - network unreachableH - host unreachableP - protocol unreachableA - admin deniedQ - source quench received (congestion)? - unknown (any other ICMP message)
NEW QUESTION # 70
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts FC1, PC2; and PC3 must access resources on Server1. An engineer configures NAT on Router R1 to enable the communication and enters the show command to verify operation. Which IP address is used by the hosts when they communicate globally to Server1?
- A. 155.1.1.5
- B. random addresses in the 155.1.1.0/24 range
- C. 155.1.1.1
- D. their own address in the 10.10.10.0/24 range
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 71
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?
- A. directional patch
- B. omnidirectional
- C. Yagi
- D. multidirectional
Answer: B
Explanation:
An omnidirectional antenna is designed to radiate or receive radio waves in all horizontal directions equally well, forming a radiation pattern that, when graphically represented, typically resembles a doughnut shape.
This type of antenna is commonly used in scenarios where a uniform coverage area is needed, such as in wireless local area networks (WLANs) for providing Wi-Fi access.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 73
Drag and drop the LISP components from the left onto the function they perform on the right. Not all options are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 74 
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation:
Explanation:
Solution:
R22
int tun0
vrf forwarding FINANCE
ip add 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
tunn source e0/0
tunnel dest 209.165.200.230
no shut
ip route vrf FINANCE 10.10.111.0 255.255.255.0 tunn0
int et0/1
vrf forwarding FINANCE
ip address 10.22.22.1 255.255.255.252
wr
Verification:-
A computer screen with white text Description automatically generated
A computer screen with white text Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which JSON syntax is valid?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A. Option B
- B. Option D
- C. Option A
- D. Option C
Answer: D
Explanation:
This JSON can be written as follows:
{
'switch': {
'name': 'dist1',
'interfaces': ['gig1', 'gig2', 'gig3']
}
}
NEW QUESTION # 76
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?
- A. point-to-point
- B. broadcast
- C. Ethernet
- D. multipoint
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Broadcast network type is the default for an OSPF enabled ethernet interface (while Point-to- Point is the default OSPF network type for Serial interface with HDLC and PPP encapsulation).
Reference: https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/cisco-ios-cookbook/0596527225/ch08s15.html
NEW QUESTION # 77
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 78
Drag and drop the LISP components from the left onto the function they perform on the right. Not all options are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 79 
Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)
- A. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.
- B. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.
- C. Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.
- D. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.
- E. A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which IPv4 packet field carries the QoS IP classification marking?
- A. TTL
- B. ToS
- C. FCS
- D. ID
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Type of Service (ToS) field in the IPv4 packet header is used for QoS IP classification marking. This field allows packets to be marked for preferential treatment in conjunction with Quality of Service (QoS). The ToS field was further divided into a high order 3 bits called IP Precedence or IPP, which is used to classify the packet.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
CoPP protects the route processor on network devices by treating route processor resources as a separate entity with its own ingress interface (and in some implementations, egress also). CoPP is used to police traffic that is destined to the route processor of the router such as:
+ routing protocols like OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP.
+ Gateway redundancy protocols like HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP.
+ Network management protocols like telnet, SSH, SNMP, or RADIUS.
Therefore we must apply the CoPP to deal with SSH because it is in the
management plane. CoPP must be put under "control-plane" command.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Refer to the exhibit.
Security policy requires all idle-exec sessions to be terminated in 600 seconds. Which configuration achieves this goal?
- A. line vty 0 15
absolute-timeout 600 - B. line vty 01 5
exec-timeout 10 0 - C. line vty 0 15
exec-timeout - D. line vty 0 4
exec-timeout 600
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 83
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts, drag and drop the commands into the configuration to achieve these results. Some commands may be used more than once. Not all commands are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings?
- A. Authentication Template
- B. Template Editor
- C. Application Policies
- D. Command Runner
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Cisco DNA Center provides an interactive editor called Template Editor to author CLI templates. Template Editor is a centralized CLI management tool to help design a set of device configurations that you need to build devices in a branch. When you have a site, office, or branch that uses a similar set of devices and configurations, you can use Template Editor to build generic configurations and apply the configurations to one or more devices in the branch.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Simulation 05
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below.
Explanation:
R1
enable
Config t
Int loop0
Ip ospf 1 area 0
Int et0/0
Ip ospf 1 area 0
Ip ospf network point-to-point
copy run start
R2
Enable
Config t
Int loop0
Ip ospf 1 area 0
Int et0/0
Ip ospf 1 area 0
Ip ospf network point-to-point
Int et0/1
Ip ospf 1 area 0
Ip ospf network point-to-point
copy run start
R3
Enable
Config t
Int loop0
Ip ospf 1 area 0
Int et0/1
Ip ospf 1 area 0
Ip ospf network point-to-point
copy run start
Verification:-
NEW QUESTION # 86
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the protocols they apply to on the right?
Answer:
Explanation:
.
NEW QUESTION # 87 
Refer to the exhibit Which command must be applied to complete the configuration and enable RESTCONF?
- A. ip http client username restconf
- B. ip http secure-server
- C. ip http server
- D. ip http secure-port 443
Answer: B
Explanation:
The command ip http secure-server is used to enable the HTTPS server on a Cisco device, which is necessary for RESTCONF to operate securely. RESTCONF is an HTTP-based protocol that provides a programmatic interface for accessing data defined in YANG, using the datastore concepts defined in NETCONF. Enabling the HTTPS server ensures that RESTCONF can be used over a secure connection, which is a best practice for network security. References: Cisco Programmability Configuration Guide, RESTCONF Protocol Video.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol should be used to meet a design requirement for more efficient default gateway bandwidth usage across multiple devices?
- A. LCAP
- B. HSRP
- C. GLBP
- D. VRRP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The main disadvantage of HSRP and VRRP is that only one gateway is elected to be the active gateway and used to forward traffic whilst the rest are unused until the active one fails. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol and performs the similar function to HSRP and VRRP but it supports load balancing among members in a GLBP group.
NEW QUESTION # 89
In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?
- A. HSRP
- B. NSF/NSR
- C. VRRP
- D. SSO
Answer: D
Explanation:
Stateful Switchover (SSO) provides protection for network edge devices with dual Route Processors (RPs) that represent a single point of failure in the network design, and where an outage might result in loss of service for customers.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings?
- A. Authentication Template
- B. Template Editor
- C. Application Policies
- D. Command Runner
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Cisco DNA Center provides an interactive editor called Template Editor to author CLI templates. Template Editor is a centralized CLI management tool to help design a set of device configurations that you need to build devices in a branch. When you have a site, office, or branch that uses a similar set of devices and configurations, you can use Template Editor to build generic configurations and apply the configurations to one or more devices in the branch.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systemsmanagement/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/1-3/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_3/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_3_chapter_0111.html
NEW QUESTION # 91
What ate two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two )
- A. The control plane node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database
- B. Traffic within the fabric always goes through the control plane node
- C. Fabric endpoints are connected directly to the border node
- D. The border node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database
- E. The border node is required for communication between fabric and nonfabric devices.
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION # 92
......
To prepare for the Cisco 350-401 exam, candidates can take advantage of various resources provided by Cisco, such as official training courses, study guides, practice exams, and virtual labs. These resources are designed to help candidates acquire the knowledge and skills needed to pass the exam and become proficient in implementing enterprise network solutions.
350-401 Exam Crack Test Engine Dumps Training With 378 Questions: https://www.itexamreview.com/350-401-exam-dumps.html
Getting 350-401 Certification Made Easy: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1C-WqyrJVUknOW18TP1i7Bg5NpELczIG7
