[Mar-2022] The Best Isaca Certification CISA Professional Exam Questions
Try 100% Updated CISA Exam Questions [2022]
Introduction to ISACA CISA Certification Exam
The Certified Information Systems Auditor CISA is a professional accreditation that is administered by the Institute of Internal Auditors. The certification demonstrates expertise in information systems. Those who decide to pursue the ISACA CISA certification will enjoy many benefits that go beyond the certificate itself. In this article, we will discuss information related to the ISACA CISA eczema, including topics of CISA exams, and the best sources to prepare. Here we will also discuss the best and amazing tool for preparation. That tool is named ISACA CISA Dumps. A certification is a paper or card which identifies the holder as having fulfilled particular requirements of the certifying body.
This free permit allows you to know with certainty that you passed your exams, and it can be used as legal proof of proficiency. If you have some products and want to sell them, products will be more worthy than ever if they got a quality assurance stamp and documents of purity. After that, the sale of the products will increase.
There are many types of certificate programs available to students, who are interested in getting an accounting degree. These certificates may include accounting, auditing, taxation, management, information technology, and business. Some of these programs require completion of undergraduate hours first before proceeding on with graduate work in these areas. The credential that you receive near the end is a certificate based on what you have learned along the way. This can be very useful in helping you achieve your career goals because it proves that you have fulfilled specific requirements for one department of study or another.
Post Exam tasks
For getting certification, there are some tasks you have to do after passing the CISO exam. After passing the CISO exam, pay a 50$ application processing fee. Submit your application to show experience (essential for the certification). Strike to the certification-related profession and professional knowledge.
NEW QUESTION 242
Iptables is based on which of the following frameworks?
- A. NetSecure
- B. None of the choices.
- C. Netfilter
- D. NetCheck
- E. NetDoom
Answer: C
Explanation:
ipchains is a free software based firewall running on earlier Linux. It is a rewrite of ipfwadm but is superseded by iptables in Linux 2.4 and above.
Iptables controls the packet filtering and NAT components within the Linux kernel. It is based on Netfilter , a framework which provides a set of hooks within the Linux kernel for intercepting and manipulating network packets.
NEW QUESTION 243
Which of the following findings would be of MOST concern to an IS auditor performing a review of an end-user developed application that generates financial statements?
- A. The application is not sufficiently supported by the IT department
- B. There is no adequate user license for the application.
- C. There is no control to ensure accuracy of the processed data.
- D. There is not adequate training in the use of the application.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 244
Which of the following is used in providing logical access control to restrict updating or deleting business information in a relational database?
- A. View
- B. Trigger
- C. Join
- D. Primary key
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 245
Which of the following is an IS auditor's BEST guidance regarding the use of IT frameworks?
- A. Industry-specific frameworks, when available, are preferred over the more generic comprehensive frameworks.
- B. To ensure consistency throughout the organization, management should adopt a single comprehensive framework.
- C. Frameworks encourage efficiency, provide a way to measure effectiveness, and allow for improvements
- D. Frameworks provide standards that enable management to benchmark against peer organizations.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 246
An IS auditor is evaluating management's risk assessment of information systems. The IS auditor should FIRST review:
- A. the mechanism for monitoring the risks related to the assets.
- B. the controls already in place.
- C. the threats/vulnerabilities affecting the assets.
- D. the effectiveness of the controls in place.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
One of the key factors to be considered while assessing the risks related to the use of various information systems is the threats and vulnerabilities affecting the assets. The risks related to the use of information assets should be evaluated in isolation from the installed controls. Similarly, the effectiveness of the controls should be considered during the risk mitigation stage and not during the risk assessment phase A mechanism to continuously monitor the risks related to assets should be put in place during the risk monitoring function that follows the risk assessment phase.
NEW QUESTION 247
Which of the following types of firewall treats each network frame or packet in isolation?
- A. stateless firewall
- B. packet filtering firewall
- C. None of the choices.
- D. statefull firewall
- E. hardware firewall
- F. combination firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A stateless firewall treats each network frame or packet in isolation.
Such a firewall has no way of knowing if any given packet is part of an existing connection, is trying to establish a new connection, or is just a rogue packet.
NEW QUESTION 248
.What is the most common reason for information systems to fail to meet the needs of users? Choose the BEST answer.
- A. Inadequate senior management participation during system requirements definition
- B. Lack of funding
- C. Inadequate user participation during system requirements definition
- D. Poor IT strategic planning
Answer: C
Explanation:
Inadequate user participation during system requirements definition is the most common reason for information systems to fail to meet the needs of users.
NEW QUESTION 249
An organization provides information to its supply chain partners and customers through an extranet infrastructure. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the firewall security architecture?
- A. A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) has been implemented for user authentication and remote administration of the firewall.
- B. inbound traffic is blocked unless the traffic type and connections have been specifically permitted.
- C. The firewall is placed on top of the commercial operating system with all installation options.
- D. Firewall policies are updated on the basis of changing requirements.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The greatest concern when implementing firewalls on top of commercial operating systems is the potential presence of vulnerabilities that could undermine the security posture of the firewall platform itself. In most circumstances, when commercial firewalls are breached that breach is facilitated by vulnerabilities in the underlying operating system. Keeping all installation options available on the system further increases the risks of vulnerabilities and exploits. Using SSL for firewall administration (choice A) is important, because changes in user and supply chain partners' roles and profiles will be dynamic. Therefore, it is appropriate to maintain the firewall policies daily (choice B), and prudent to block all inbound traffic unless permitted (choice C).
NEW QUESTION 250
Which of the following is a characteristic of a single mirrored data center used for disaster recovery?
- A. The mirrored data center does not require staffing.
- B. The mirrored site may create brief interruptions noticeable to users
- C. Data replication to the mirrored site should continue after failover
- D. Real-time data replication occurs from the production site
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 251
Which of the following would provide management with the MOST reasonable assurance that a new data warehouse will meet the needs of the organization?
- A. Appointing data stewards to provide effective data governance
- B. Integrating data requirements into the system development life cycle (SDLC)
- C. Facilitating effective communication between management and developers
- D. Classifying data quality issues by the severity of their impact to the organization
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 252
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization s audit quality management procedures?
- A. Number of resources dedicated to quality control procedures
- B. Number of audits completed within the annual audit plan
- C. Quality of independent review scores
- D. Quality of auditor performance reviews
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 253
Which of the following ensures the availability of transactions in the event of a disaster?
- A. Send tapes daily containing transactions offsite.
- B. Transmit transactions offsite in real time.
- C. Capture transactions to multiple storage devices.
- D. Send tapes hourly containing transactions offsite,
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The only way to ensure availability of all transactions is to perform a real-time transmission to an offsite facility. Choices A and B are not in real time and, therefore, would not include all the transactions. Choice C does not ensure availability at an offsite location.
NEW QUESTION 254
Which of the following is the BEST method for determining the criticality of each application system in the production environment?
- A. Perform a gap analysis.
- B. Perform a business impact analysis.
- C. interview the application programmers.
- D. Review the most recent application audits.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
A business impact analysis will give the impact of the loss of each application. Interviews with the application programmers will provide limited information related to the criticality of the systems. A gap analysis is only relevant to systems development and project management. The audits may not contain the required information or may not have been done recently.
NEW QUESTION 255
What type of risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist?
- A. Detection risk
- B. Business risk
- C. Residual risk
- D. Inherent risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Detection risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist.
NEW QUESTION 256
Which of the following should occur EARLIEST in a business continuity management lifecycle?
- A. Defining business continuity procedures
- B. Identifying critical business processes
- C. Carrying out a threat and risk assessment
- D. Developing a training and awareness program
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION 257
Which of the following cloud deployment model can be shared by several organizations?
- A. Hybrid Cloud
- B. Community Cloud
- C. Private Cloud\
- D. Public Cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Governance and Management of IT
Explanation/Reference:
In Community cloud, the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of
consumers from organizations that have shared concerns (e.g., mission, security requirements, policy, and
compliance considerations). It may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations
in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises.
For your exam you should know below information about Cloud Computing deployment models:
Private cloud
The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization comprising multiple
consumers (e.g., business units). It may be owned, managed, and operated by the organization, a third
party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises.
Private Cloud
Community Cloud
The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of consumers from
organizations that have shared concerns (e.g., mission, security requirements, policy, and compliance
considerations). It may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations in the
community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises.
Community Cloud
Public Cloud
The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public. It may be owned, managed, and
operated by a business, academic, or government organization, or some combination of them. It exists on
the premises of the cloud provider.
Public Cloud
Hybrid cloud
The cloud infrastructure is a composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (private, community,
or public) that remain unique entities, but are bound together by standardized or proprietary technology that
enables data and application portability (e.g., cloud bursting for load balancing between clouds)
hybrid cloud
The following answers are incorrect:
Private cloud - The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization comprising
multiple consumers (e.g., business units). It may be owned, managed, and operated by the organization, a
third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises.
Public cloud - The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public. It may be owned,
managed, and operated by a business, academic, or government organization, or some combination of
them. It exists on the premises of the cloud provider.
Hybrid cloud - The cloud infrastructure is a composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures
(private, community, or public) that remain unique entities, but are bound together by standardized or
proprietary technology that enables data and application portability (e.g., cloud bursting for load balancing
between clouds)
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 102
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP 3rd edition Page number 689 and 690
NEW QUESTION 258
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for procedures to dispose of data securely?
- A. Classification of data
- B. Type of media used for data storage
- C. Environmental regulations
- D. Data retention policy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 259
Which of the following control provides an alternative measure of control?
- A. Deterrent
- B. Preventive
- C. Compensating
- D. Detective
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
Explanation:
For your exam you should know below information about different security controls Deterrent Controls Deterrent Controls are intended to discourage a potential attacker. Access controls act as a deterrent to threats and attacks by the simple fact that the existence of the control is enough to keep some potential attackers from attempting to circumvent the control. This is often because the effort required to circumvent the control is far greater than the potential reward if the attacker is successful, or, conversely, the negative implications of a failed attack (or getting caught) outweigh the benefits of success. For example, by forcing the identification and authentication of a user, service, or application, and all that it implies, the potential for incidents associated with the system is significantly reduced because an attacker will fear association with the incident. If there are no controls for a given access path, the number of incidents and the potential impact become infinite. Controls inherently reduce exposure to risk by applying oversight for a process.
This oversight acts as a deterrent, curbing an attacker's appetite in the face of probable repercussions.
The best example of a deterrent control is demonstrated by employees and their propensity to intentionally perform unauthorized functions, leading to unwanted events. When users begin to understand that by authenticating into a system to perform a function, their activities are logged and monitored, and it reduces the likelihood they will attempt such an action. Many threats are based on the anonymity of the threat agent, and any potential for identification and association with their actions is avoided at all costs. It is this fundamental reason why access controls are the key target of circumvention by attackers. Deterrents also take the form of potential punishment if users do something unauthorized. For example, if the organization policy specifies that an employee installing an unauthorized wireless access point will be fired, that will determine most employees from installing wireless access points.
Preventative Controls
Preventive controls are intended to avoid an incident from occurring. Preventative access controls keep a user from performing some activity or function. Preventative controls differ from deterrent controls in that the control is not optional and cannot (easily) be bypassed. Deterrent controls work on the theory that it is easier to obey the control rather than to risk the consequences of bypassing the control. In other words, the power for action resides with the user (or the attacker). Preventative controls place the power of action with the system, obeying the control is not optional. The only way to bypass the control is to find a flaw in the control's implementation.
Compensating Controls
Compensating controls are introduced when the existing capabilities of a system do not support the requirement of a policy. Compensating controls can be technical, procedural, or managerial. Although an existing system may not support the required controls, there may exist other technology or processes that can supplement the existing environment, closing the gap in controls, meeting policy requirements, and reducing overall risk. For example, the access control policy may state that the authentication process must be encrypted when performed over the Internet. Adjusting an application to natively support encryption for authentication purposes may be too costly. Secure Socket Layer (SSL), an encryption protocol, can be employed and layered on top of the authentication process to support the policy statement. Other examples include a separation of duties environment, which offers the capability to isolate certain tasks to compensate for technical limitations in the system and ensure the security of transactions.
In addition, management processes, such as authorization, supervision, and administration, can be used to compensate for gaps in the access control environment.
Detective Controls
Detective controls warn when something has happened, and are the earliest point in the post-incident timeline. Access controls are a deterrent to threats and can be aggressively utilized to prevent harmful incidents through the application of least privilege. However, the detective nature of access controls can provide significant visibility into the access environment and help organizations manage their access strategy and related security risk. As mentioned previously, strongly managed access privileges provided to an authenticated user offer the ability to reduce the risk exposure of the enterprise's assets by limiting the capabilities that authenticated user has. However, there are few options to control what a user can perform once privileges are provided. For example, if a user is provided write access to a file and that file is damaged, altered, or otherwise negatively impacted (either deliberately or unintentionally), the use of applied access controls will offer visibility into the transaction. The control environment can be established to log activity regarding the identification, authentication, authorization, and use of privileges on a system. This can be used to detect the occurrence of errors, the attempts to perform an unauthorized action, or to validate when provided credentials were exercised. The logging system as a detective device provides evidence of actions (both successful and unsuccessful) and tasks that were executed by authorized users.
Corrective Controls
When a security incident occurs, elements within the security infrastructure may require corrective actions.
Corrective controls are actions that seek to alter the security posture of an environment to correct any deficiencies and return the environment to a secure state. A security incident signals the failure of one or more directive, deterrent, preventative, or compensating controls. The detective controls may have triggered an alarm or notification, but now the corrective controls must work to stop the incident in its tracks. Corrective controls can take many forms, all depending on the particular situation at hand or the particular security failure that needs to be dealt with.
Recovery Controls
Any changes to the access control environment, whether in the face of a security incident or to offer temporary compensating controls, need to be accurately reinstated and returned to normal operations.
There are several situations that may affect access controls, their applicability, status, or management.
Events can include system outages, attacks, project changes, technical demands, administrative gaps, and full-blown disaster situations. For example, if an application is not correctly installed or deployed, it may adversely affect controls placed on system files or even have default administrative accounts unknowingly implemented upon install. Additionally, an employee may be transferred, quit, or be on temporary leave that may affect policy requirements regarding separation of duties. An attack on systems may have resulted in the implantation of a Trojan horse program, potentially exposing private user information, such as credit card information and financial data. In all of these cases, an undesirable situation must be rectified as quickly as possible and controls returned to normal operations.
For your exam you should know below information about different security controls Deterrent Controls Deterrent Controls are intended to discourage a potential attacker. Access controls act as a deterrent to threats and attacks by the simple fact that the existence of the control is enough to keep some potential attackers from attempting to circumvent the control. This is often because the effort required to circumvent the control is far greater than the potential reward if the attacker is successful, or, conversely, the negative implications of a failed attack (or getting caught) outweigh the benefits of success. For example, by forcing the identification and authentication of a user, service, or application, and all that it implies, the potential for incidents associated with the system is significantly reduced because an attacker will fear association with the incident. If there are no controls for a given access path, the number of incidents and the potential impact become infinite. Controls inherently reduce exposure to risk by applying oversight for a process.
This oversight acts as a deterrent, curbing an attacker's appetite in the face of probable repercussions.
The best example of a deterrent control is demonstrated by employees and their propensity to intentionally perform unauthorized functions, leading to unwanted events.
When users begin to understand that by authenticating into a system to perform a function, their activities are logged and monitored, and it reduces the likelihood they will attempt such an action. Many threats are based on the anonymity of the threat agent, and any potential for identification and association with their actions is avoided at all costs.
It is this fundamental reason why access controls are the key target of circumvention by attackers.
Deterrents also take the form of potential punishment if users do something unauthorized. For example, if the organization policy specifies that an employee installing an unauthorized wireless access point will be fired, that will determine most employees from installing wireless access points.
Preventative Controls
Preventive controls are intended to avoid an incident from occurring. Preventative access controls keep a user from performing some activity or function. Preventative controls differ from deterrent controls in that the control is not optional and cannot (easily) be bypassed. Deterrent controls work on the theory that it is easier to obey the control rather than to risk the consequences of bypassing the control. In other words, the power for action resides with the user (or the attacker). Preventative controls place the power of action with the system, obeying the control is not optional. The only way to bypass the control is to find a flaw in the control's implementation.
Compensating Controls
Compensating controls are introduced when the existing capabilities of a system do not support the requirement of a policy. Compensating controls can be technical, procedural, or managerial. Although an existing system may not support the required controls, there may exist other technology or processes that can supplement the existing environment, closing the gap in controls, meeting policy requirements, and reducing overall risk.
For example, the access control policy may state that the authentication process must be encrypted when performed over the Internet. Adjusting an application to natively support encryption for authentication purposes may be too costly. Secure Socket Layer (SSL), an encryption protocol, can be employed and layered on top of the authentication process to support the policy statement.
Other examples include a separation of duties environment, which offers the capability to isolate certain tasks to compensate for technical limitations in the system and ensure the security of transactions. In addition, management processes, such as authorization, supervision, and administration, can be used to compensate for gaps in the access control environment.
Detective Controls
Detective controls warn when something has happened, and are the earliest point in the post-incident timeline. Access controls are a deterrent to threats and can be aggressively utilized to prevent harmful incidents through the application of least privilege. However, the detective nature of access controls can provide significant visibility into the access environment and help organizations manage their access strategy and related security risk.
As mentioned previously, strongly managed access privileges provided to an authenticated user offer the ability to reduce the risk exposure of the enterprise's assets by limiting the capabilities that authenticated user has. However, there are few options to control what a user can perform once privileges are provided.
For example, if a user is provided write access to a file and that file is damaged, altered, or otherwise negatively impacted (either deliberately or unintentionally), the use of applied access controls will offer visibility into the transaction. The control environment can be established to log activity regarding the identification, authentication, authorization, and use of privileges on a system.
This can be used to detect the occurrence of errors, the attempts to perform an unauthorized action, or to validate when provided credentials were exercised. The logging system as a detective device provides evidence of actions (both successful and unsuccessful) and tasks that were executed by authorized users.
Corrective Controls
When a security incident occurs, elements within the security infrastructure may require corrective actions.
Corrective controls are actions that seek to alter the security posture of an environment to correct any deficiencies and return the environment to a secure state. A security incident signals the failure of one or more directive, deterrent, preventative, or compensating controls. The detective controls may have triggered an alarm or notification, but now the corrective controls must work to stop the incident in its tracks. Corrective controls can take many forms, all depending on the particular situation at hand or the particular security failure that needs to be dealt with.
Recovery Controls
Any changes to the access control environment, whether in the face of a security incident or to offer temporary compensating controls, need to be accurately reinstated and returned to normal operations.
There are several situations that may affect access controls, their applicability, status, or management.
Events can include system outages, attacks, project changes, technical demands, administrative gaps, and full-blown disaster situations. For example, if an application is not correctly installed or deployed, it may adversely affect controls placed on system files or even have default administrative accounts unknowingly implemented upon install.
Additionally, an employee may be transferred, quit, or be on temporary leave that may affect policy requirements regarding separation of duties. An attack on systems may have resulted in the implantation of a Trojan horse program, potentially exposing private user information, such as credit card information and financial data. In all of these cases, an undesirable situation must be rectified as quickly as possible and controls returned to normal operations.
The following answers are incorrect:
Deterrent - Deterrent controls are intended to discourage a potential attacker Preventive - Preventive controls are intended to avoid an incident from occurring Detective -Detective control helps identify an incident's activities and potentially an intruder Reference:
CISA Review Manual 2014 Page number 44
and
Official ISC2 CISSP guide 3rd edition Page number 50 and 51
NEW QUESTION 260
Identify the INCORRECT statement related to network performance below?
- A. Latency - Latency the actual rate that information is transferred
- B. Jitter - Jitter variation in the time of arrival at the receiver of the information
- C. Error Rate - Error rate the number of corrupted bits expressed as a percentage or fraction of the total sent
- D. Bandwidth - Bandwidth commonly measured in bits/second is the maximum rate that information can be transferred
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The word INCORRECT is the keyword used within the question. You need to find out a statement which is incorrectly describe about network performance. Throughput the actual rate that information is transferred and Latency is the delay between the sender and the receiver decoding it, this is mainly a function of the signals travel time, and processing time at any nodes the information traverses For your exam you should know below information about Network performance:
Network performance refers to measurement of service quality of a telecommunications product as seen by the customer.
The following list gives examples of network performance measures for a circuit-switched network and one type of packet-switched network (ATM):
Circuit-switched networks: In circuit switched networks, network performance is synonymous with the grade of service. The number of rejected calls is a measure of how well the network is performing under heavy traffic loads. Other types of performance measures can include noise, echo and so on.
ATM: In an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network, performance can be measured by line rate, quality of service (QoS), data throughput, connect time, stability, technology, modulation technique and modem enhancements.
There are many different ways to measure the performance of a network, as each network is different in nature and design. Performance can also be modeled instead of measured; one example of this is using state transition diagrams to model queuing performance in a circuit-switched network. These diagrams allow the network planner to analyze how the network will perform in each state, ensuring that the network will be optimally designed.
The following measures are often considered important:
Bandwidth - Bandwidth is commonly measured in bits/second is the maximum rate that information can be transferred Throughput - Throughput is the actual rate that information is transferred Latency - Latency is the delay between the sender and the receiver decoding it, this is mainly a function of the signals travel time, and processing time at any nodes the information traverses Jitter - Jitter is the variation in the time of arrival at the receiver of the information Error Rate - Error rate is the number of corrupted bits expressed as a percentage or fraction of the total sent The following answers are incorrect:
The other options correctly describe network performance parameters.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 275
NEW QUESTION 261
Which of the following is the BEST method for preventing the leakage of confidential information in a laptop computer?
- A. Use a biometric authentication device.
- B. Enable the boot password (hardware-based password).
- C. Use two-factor authentication to logon to the notebook.
- D. Encrypt the hard disk with the owner's public key.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Only encryption of the data with a secure key will prevent the loss of confidential information. In such a case, confidential information can be accessed only with knowledge of the owner's private key, which should never be shared. Choices B, C and Ddeal with authentication and not with confidentiality of information. An individual can remove the hard drive from the secured laptop and install it on an unsecured computer, gaining access to the data.
NEW QUESTION 262
An IS auditor is evaluating a virtual server environment and teams that the production server, development server and management console are housed in the same physical host. What
- A. The development server and management console share the same host.
- B. The physical host is a single point of failure.
- C. The management console is a single point of failure
- D. The development and production servers share the same host.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 263
The IS auditor has identified a potential fraud perpetrated by the network administrator. The IS auditor should:
- A. perform more detailed tests prior to disclosing the audit results
- B. share the potential audit finding with the security administrator
- C. issue a report to ensure a timely resolution
- D. review the audit finding with the audit committee prior to any other discussions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
NEW QUESTION 264
......
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