
Latest [Jan 27, 2022] 8008 Exam Questions – Valid 8008 Dumps Pdf
8008 Practice Test Questions Answers Updated 359 Questions
NEW QUESTION 169
In respect of operational risk capital calculations, the Basel II accord recommends a confidence level and time horizon of:
- A. 99% confidence level over a 10 year time horizon
- B. 99.9% confidence level over a 10 day time horizon
- C. 99% confidence level over a 1 year time horizon
- D. 99.9% confidence level over a 1 year time horizon
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Choice 'd' represents the Basel II requirement, all other choices are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 170
Which of the following are attributes of a robust stress testing programme at a bank?
- A. Robust systems infrastructure
- B. All of the above
- C. Written policies and procedures
- D. Data of appropriate quality and granularity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A bank's stress testing programme in relation to firm wide stress tests should document the type, frequency and the purpose of the programme, as well as methodologies for defining scenarios and the remedial actions envisaged. Choice 'b' is therefore a necessary attribute of a robust stress testing programme.
The programme should be supported by a robust systems infrastructure that allows the execution of periodic as well as ad-hoc stress tests at the right level (business unit, as well as firm-wide) at the right level of detail or granularity. Choice 'c' also therefore is a valid choice.
A related element is data quality - without which no stress tests can be be credible.
Therefore all the choices listed are correct and Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 171
For credit risk calculations, correlation between the asset values of two issuers is often proxied with:
- A. Credit migration matrices
- B. Transition probabilities
- C. Default correlations
- D. Equity correlations
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Asset returns are relevant for credit risk models where a default is related to the value of the assets of the firm falling below the default threshold. When assessing credit risk for portfolios with multiple credit assets, it becomes necessary to know the asset correlations of the different firms. Since this data is rarely available, it is very common to approximate asset correlations using equity prices. Equity correlations are used as proxies for asset correlation, therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 172
Which of the following statements are true in relation to Monte Carlo based VaR calculations:
I. Monte Carlo VaR relies upon a full revalution of the portfolio for each simulation II. Monte Carlo VaR relies upon the delta or delta-gamma approximation for valuation III. Monte Carlo VaR can capture a wide range of distributional assumptions for asset returns IV. Monte Carlo VaR is less compute intensive than Historical VaR
- A. I and III
- B. II and IV
- C. All of the above
- D. I, III and IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Monte Carlo VaR computations generally include the following steps:
1. Generate multivariate normal random numbers, based upon the correlation matrix of the risk factors
2. Based upon these correlated random numbers, calculate the new level of the risk factor (eg, an index value, or interest rate)
3. Use the new level of the risk factor to revalue each of the underlying assets, and calculate the difference from the initial valuation of the portfolio. This is the portfolio P&L.
4. Use the portfolio P&L to estimate the desired percentile (eg, 99th percentile) to get and estimate of the VaR.
Monte Carlo based VaR calculations rely upon full portfolio revaluations, as opposed to delta/delta-gamma approximations. As a result, they are also computationally more intensive. Because they are not limited by the range of instruments and the properties they can cover, they can capture a wide range of distributional assumptions for asset returns. They also tend to provide more robust estimates for the tail, including portions of the tail that lie beyond the VaR cutoff.
Therefore I and III are true, and the other two are not.
NEW QUESTION 173
Which of the following statements is true:
I. When averaging quantiles of two Pareto distributions, the quantiles of the averaged models are equal to the geometric average of the quantiles of the original models based upon the number of data items in each original model.
II. When modeling severity distributions, we can only use distributions which have fewer parameters than the number of datapoints we are modeling from.
III. If an internal loss data based model covers the same risks as a scenario based model, they can can be combined using the weighted average of their parameters.
IV If an internal loss model and a scenario based model address different risks, the models can be combined by taking their sums.
- A. I and II
- B. II and III
- C. All statements are true
- D. III and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Statement I is true, the quantiles of the averaged models are equal to the geometric average of the quantiles of the original models.
Statement II is correct, the number of data points from which model parameters are estimated must be greater than the number of parameters. So if a distribution, say Poisson, has one parameter, we need at least two data points to estimate the parameter. Other complex distributions may have multiple parameters for shape, scale and other things, and the minimum number of observations required will be greater than the number of parameters.
Statement III is true, if the ILD data and scenarios cover the same risk, they are essentially different perspectives on the same risk, and therefore should be combined as weighted averages.
But if they cover completely different risks, the models will need to be added together, not averaged - which is why Statement IV is true.
NEW QUESTION 174
Identify the correct sequence of events as it unfolded in the credit crisis beginning 2007:
I. Mortgage defaults increased
II. Collapse in prices of unrelated assets as banks tried to create liquidity III. Banks refused to lend or transact with each other IV. Asset prices for CDOs collapsed
- A. I, IV, III and II
- B. IV, I, II and III
- C. I, III, IV and II
- D. III, IV, I and II
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to a paper by the BCBS, here is an excellent summary of what happened. Based on this, Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
"At the outset of the crisis, mortgage default shocks played a part in the deterioration of market prices of collateralised debt obligations (CDOs). Simultaneously, these shocks revealed deficiencies in the models used to manage and price these products. The complexity and resulting lack of transparency led to uncertainty about the value of the underlying investment. Market participants then drastically scaled down their activity in the origination and distribution markets and liquidity disappeared. The standstill in the securitisation markets forced banks to warehouse loans that were intended to be sold in the secondary markets. Given a lack of transparency of the ultimate ownership of troubled investments, funding liquidity concerns were triggered within the banking sector as banks refused to provide sufficient funds to each other. This in turn led to the hoarding of liquidity, exacerbating further the funding pressures within the banking sector. The initial difficulties in subprime mortgages also fed through to a broader range of market instruments since the drying up of market and funding liquidity forced market participants to liquidate those positions which they could trade in order to scale back risk. An increase in risk aversion also led to a general flight to quality, an example of which was the high withdrawals by households from money market funds."
NEW QUESTION 175
If the default hazard rate for a company is 10%, and the spread on its bonds over the risk free rate is 800 bps, what is the expected recovery rate?
- A. 0.00%
- B. 8.00%
- C. 40.00%
- D. 20.00%
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The recovery rate, the default hazard rate (also called the average default intensity) and the spread on debt are linked by the equation Hazard Rate = Spread/(1 - Recovery Rate). Therefore, the recovery rate implicit in the given data is = 1 - 8%/10% = 20%.
NEW QUESTION 176
What is the risk horizon period used for credit risk as generally used for economic capital calculations and as required by regulation?
- A. 10 days
- B. 1 year
- C. 1-day
- D. 10 years
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The credit risk horizon for credit VaR is generally one year. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 177
For identical mean and variance, which of the following distribution assumptions will provide a higher estimate of VaR at a high level of confidence?
- A. A distribution with kurtosis = 8
- B. A distribution with kurtosis = 0
- C. A distribution with kurtosis = 3
- D. A distribution with kurtosis = 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A fat tailed distribution has more weight in the tails, and therefore at a high level of confidence the VaR estimate will be higher for a distribution with heavier tails. At relatively lower levels of confidence however, the situation is reversed as the heavier tailed distribution will have a VaR estimate lower than a thinner tailed distribution.
A higher level of kurtosis implies a 'peaked' distribution with fatter tails. Among the given choices, a distribution with kurtosis equal to 8 will have the heaviest tails, and therefore a higher VaR estimate. Choice 'a' is therefore the correct answer. Also refer to the tutorial about VaR and fat tails.
NEW QUESTION 178
Which of the following credit risk models relies upon the analysis of credit rating migrations to assess credit risk?
- A. The actuarial approach
- B. KMV's EDF based approach
- C. The CreditMetrics approach
- D. The contingent claims approach
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice 'b'. The following is a brief description of the major approaches available to model credit risk, and the analysis that underlies them:
1. CreditMetrics: based on the credit migration framework. Considers the probability of migration to other credit ratings and the impact of such migrations on portfolio value.
2. CreditPortfolio View: similar to CreditMetrics, but adds the impact of the business cycle to the evaluation.
3. The contingent claims approach: uses option theory by considering a debt as a put option on the assets of the firm.
4. KMV's EDF (expected default frequency) based approach: relies on EDFs and distance to default as a measure of credit risk.
5. CreditRisk+: Also called the 'actuarial approach', considers default as a binary event that either happens or does not happen. This approach does not consider the loss of value from deterioration in credit quality (unless the deterioration implies default).
NEW QUESTION 179
A statement in the annual report of a bank states that the 10-day VaR at the 95% level of confidence at the end of the year is $253m. Which of the following is true:
I. The maximum loss that the bank is exposed to over a 10-day period is $253m.
II. There is a 5% probability that the bank's losses will not exceed $253m III. The maximum loss in value that is expected to be equaled or exceeded only 5% of the time is $253m IV. The bank's regulatory capital assets are equal to $253m
- A. I and IV
- B. I and III
- C. III only
- D. II and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Statement I is not correct as VaR does not set an upper limit on losses. In this case, the bank expects the losses to exceed $253m 5% of the times, and the VaR number does not indicate any theoretical maximum amount of losses.Statement II is incorrect as there is a 95% (and not 5%) probability that the bank's losses will not exceed
$253mStatement III is correct and describes VaR.Statement IV is incorrect, as regulatory capital is a more complex computation for which VaR is only one of the various input.Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 180
If the duration of a bond yielding 10% is 6 years, the volatility of the underlying interest rates 5% per annum, what is the 10-day VaR at 99% confidence of a bond position comprising just this bond with a value of $10m?
Assume there are 250 days in a year.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 181
According to the Basel II framework, subordinated term debt that was originally issued 4 years ago with a maturity of 6 years is considered a part of:
- A. Tier 2 capital
- B. None of the above
- C. Tier 3 capital
- D. Tier 1 capital
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Basel II framework, Tier 1 capital, also called core capital or basic equity, includes equity capital and disclosed reserves.
Tier 2 capital, also called supplementary capital, includes undisclosed reserves, revaluation reserves, general provisions/general loan-loss reserves, hybrid debt capital instruments and subordinated term debt issued originally for 5 years or longer.
Tier 3 capital, or short term subordinated debt, is intended only to cover market risk but only at the discretion of their national authority. This only includes short term subordinated debt originally issued for 2 or more years.
An interesting thing to note is the difference between 'subordinated term debt' under Tier 2 and the 'short term subordinated debt' under Tier 3. The distinction is based upon the years to maturity at the time the debt was issued. The remaining time to maturity is not relevant. For the subordinated term debt included under Tier 2, the amount that can be counted towards capital is reduced by 20% for every year when the debt is due within 5 years. This takes care of the time to maturity problem for Tier 2 subordinated debt. For Tier 3 short term subordinated debt, this is not an issue because debt will only qualify for Tier 3 if it has a lock-in clause stipulating that the debt is not required to be repaid if the effect of such repayment is to take the bank below minimum capital requirements.
NEW QUESTION 182
Which of the following statements are true?
I. Retail Risk Based Pricing involves using borrower specific data to arrive at both credit adjudication and pricing decisions II. An integrated 'Risk Information Management Environment' includes two elements - people and processes III. A Logical Data Model (LDM) lays down the relationships between data elements that an organization stores IV. Reference Data and Metadata refer to the same thing
- A. I and III
- B. I, II and III
- C. II and IV
- D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Statement I is correct. Retail Risk Based Pricing (RRBP) involves the use of borrower specific data (such as FICO scores, average balances etc) to arrive at credit decisions. These 'retail' credit decisions may include decisions on whether to grant a line of credit, a mortgage, issue a credit card, or any of the various other retail activities a bank may be dealing with. At the same time, this data can also be used to price the product, in addition to providing a yes or no credit decision so that risky borrowers are charged more than less risky borrowers.
Statement II is not correct, because an integrated Risk Information Management Environment includes three elements - people, processes and technology (and not just people and processes).
Statement III is correct. An LDM is a blue print of an organization's data, and describes the relationships between the various data elements.
Statement IV is not correct because reference data and metadata are not the same thing. Reference data refers to relatively static data, such as customer name (while actual transactions may not be so static). Metadata refers to data about data, and is stored in a data dictionary.
Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer and the rest are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 183
Which of the following is not a limitation of the univariate Gaussian model to capture the codependence structure between risk factros used for VaR calculations?
- A. It cannot capture linear relationships between risk factors.
- B. The univariate Gaussian model fails to fit to the empirical distributions of risk factors, notably their fat tails and skewness.
- C. A single covariance matrix is insufficient to describe the fine codependence structure among risk factors as non-linear dependencies or tail correlations are not captured.
- D. Determining the covariance matrix becomes an extremely difficult task as the number of risk factors increases.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In the univariate Gaussian model, each risk factor is modeled separately independent of the others, and the dependence between the risk factors is captured by the covariance matrix (or its equivalent combination of the correlation matrix and the variance matrix). Risk factors could include interest rates of different tenors, different equity market levels etc.
While this is a simple enough model, it has a number of limitations.
First, it fails to fit to the empirical distributions of risk factors, notably their fat tails and skewness. Second, a single covariance matrix is insufficient to describe the fine codependence structure among risk factors as non-linear dependencies or tail correlations are not captured. Third, determining the covariance matrix becomes an extremely difficult task as the number of risk factors increases. The number of covariances increases by the square of the number of variables.
But an inability to capture linear relationships between the factors is not one of the limitations of the univariate Gaussian approach - in fact it is able to do that quite nicely with covariances.
A way to address these limitations is to consider joint distributions of the risk factors that capture the dynamic relationships between the risk factors, and that correlation is not a static number across an entire range of outcomes, but the risk factors can behave differently with each other at different intersection points.
NEW QUESTION 184
Which of the following credit risk models considers debt as including a put option on the firm's assets to assess credit risk?
- A. The actuarial approach
- B. The CreditMetrics approach
- C. The contingent claims approach
- D. CreditPortfolio View
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice 'c'. The following is a brief description of the major approaches available to model credit risk, and the analysis that underlies them:
1. CreditMetrics: based on the credit migration framework. Considers the probability of migration to other credit ratings and the impact of such migrations on portfolio value.
2. CreditPortfolio View: similar to CreditMetrics, but adds the impact of the business cycle to the evaluation.
3. The contingent claims approach: uses option theory by considering a debt as a put option on the assets of the firm.
4. KMV's EDF (expected default frequency) based approach: relies on EDFs and distance to default as a measure of credit risk.
5. CreditRisk+: Also called the 'actuarial approach', considers default as a binary event that either happens or does not happen. This approach does not consider the loss of value from deterioration in credit quality (unless the deterioration implies default).
NEW QUESTION 185
Which of the following statements are true with respect to stress testing:
I. Stress testing results in a dollar estimate of losses
II. The results of stress testing can replace VaR as a measure of risk as they are better grounded in reality III. Stress testing provides an estimate of losses at a desired level of confidence IV. Stress testing based on factor shocks can allow modeling extreme events that have not occurred in the past
- A. I, II and IV
- B. II and III
- C. I and IV
- D. II, III and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Any stress test is conducted with a view to produce a dollar estimate of losses, therefore statement I is correct.
However, these numbers do not come with any probabilities or confidence levels, unlike VaR, and statement III is incorrect. Stress testing can complement VaR, but not replace it, therefore statement II is not correct.
Statement IV is correct as stress tests can be based on both actual historical events, or simulated factor shocks (eg, a factor, such as interest rates, moves by say 10-z).
Therefore Choice 'a' is correct.
NEW QUESTION 186
As opposed to traditional accounting based measures, risk adjusted performance measures use which of the following approaches to measure performance:
- A. adjust both return and the capital employed to account for the risk undertaken
- B. adjust capital employed to reflect the risk undertaken
- C. adjust returns based on the level of risk undertaken to earn that return
- D. Any or all of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Performance measurement at a very basic level involves comparing the return earned to the capital invested to earn that return. Risk adjusted performance measures (RAPMs) come in various varieties - and the key difference between RAPMs and traditional measures such as return on equity, return on assets etc is that RAPMs account for the risk undertaken. They may do so by either adjusting the return, or the capital, or both.
They are classified as RAROCs (risk adjusted return on capital), RORACs (return on risk adjusted capital) and RARORACs (risk adjusted return on risk adjusted capital).
NEW QUESTION 187
Which of the following contributed to the systemic failure during the credit crisis that began in 2007?
- A. Moral hazard from the strategy of 'originate and distribute'
- B. Inadequate attention paid to liquidity risk
- C. All of the above
- D. Stress tests that did not stress enough
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
All the factors listed above contributed to systemic failure. Liquidity risk was not on the radar of regulators, and was a second priority for risk managers, and most of the focus was on capital adequacy as liquidity was thought to be an unlikely problem. Liquidity, regardless of capital adequacy, was the primary cause of failure of a number of institutions during the crisis.
Similarly, stress tests proved to be much milder than the shocks that were actually experienced, and the strategy of 'originate and distribute' implied that the mortgage and other debt originators had no interest in any due diligence as they intended to package and sell the debt to other investors.
Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 188
The definition of operational risk per Basel II includes which of the following:
I. Risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events II. Legal risk III. Strategic risk IV. Reputational risk
- A. I and II
- B. I and III
- C. II and III
- D. I, II, III and IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Operational risk as defined in Basel II specifically excludes strategic and reputational risk. Therefore Choice
'd' is the correct answer.
Note that Basel II defines operational risk as follows:
Operational risk is defined as the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events. This definition includes legal risk, but excludes strategic and reputational risk.
NEW QUESTION 189
......
8008 dumps Sure Practice with 359 Questions: https://www.itexamreview.com/8008-exam-dumps.html
