[Oct 27, 2025] CTFL4 Exam Dumps PDF Guaranteed Success with Accurate & Updated Questions
Pass CTFL4 Exam - Real Test Engine PDF with 190 Questions
BCS CTFL4 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 96
The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).
If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than
40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS
exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.
Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).
Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?
- A. TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€
- B. TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€
- C. TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€
- D. TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k€, between 50k€ and 80k€, between 80k€ and 120k€, and more than 120k€. The test cases in the answer belong to the same partition, which is between
80k€ and 120k€, and they are expected to produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%. References:
ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 97
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?
- A. Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process
- B. Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics
- C. Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment
- D. Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests
- B. The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard
- C. Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system
- D. Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics
Answer: D
Explanation:
Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics. Non- functional testing is the process of testing the quality attributes of a system, such as performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Non-functional testing can be applied at any test level and can use both black-box and white-box test techniques. Non-functional testing can cover both technical aspects, such as response time, throughput, resource consumption, etc., and non-technical aspects, such as user satisfaction, accessibility, compliance, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.3.1, page 13; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 40.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?
I. Analyzing the impact of changes.
ii. A measure of code quality.
iii. Accurate test estimation.
iv. Making testing auditable.
Select the correct answer:
- A. i and iv
- B. ii and iii
- C. i and iii
- D. i and ii
Answer: A
Explanation:
Good traceability between the test basis and test work products provides several advantages: i.Analyzing the impact of changes:Traceability allows for easy identification of which parts of the test work products will be affected by changes in the requirements or design, facilitating impact analysis. iv.Making testing auditable:
Traceability ensures that there is a clear connection between the requirements and the test cases, which makes the testing process auditable and provides evidence that all requirements have been tested.
NEW QUESTION # 100
A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.
- A. The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.
- B. The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.
- C. The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods
- D. The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods
Answer: C
Explanation:
The thought process of the software company is incorrect, because it assumes that each artifact can be reviewed using only one review method, and that the review method depends solely on the criticality of the artifact. This is a simplistic and rigid approach that does not consider the benefits and limitations of different review methods, the context and purpose of the review, and the feedback and improvement opportunities that can be gained from multiple reviews. According to the CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, the selection of review methods should be based on several factors, such as the type and level of detail of the artifact, the availability and competence of the reviewers, the time and budget constraints, the expected defects and risks, and the desired outcomes and quality criteria. Moreover, the same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods at different stages of the development lifecycle, to ensure that the artifact meets the changing requirements, standards, and expectations of the stakeholders. For example, a requirement specification can be reviewed using an informal review method, such as a walkthrough, to get an initial feedback from the users and developers, and then using a formal review method, such as an inspection, to verify the completeness, correctness, and consistency of the specification. Therefore, the software company should adopt a more flexible and context-sensitive approach to selecting and applying review methods for different artifacts, rather than following a fixed and arbitrary rule. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.2.1, page 31-32; Section 3.2.2, page 33-34; Section 3.2.3, page 35-36.
NEW QUESTION # 101
A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300.000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):
TC1 = 299,999 TC2=300,000 TC=300,001
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
- A. TC3 would highlight the fault
- B. None of the three test cases would highlight the fault.
- C. TC2 would highlight the fault
- D. TC1 would highlight the fault
Answer: C
Explanation:
The requirement specifies that a bonus should be paid if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year is 300,000€ or more. The software incorrectly implements this requirement with "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300,000)". Using boundary value analysis (BVA), which is a common technique in software testing, the three test cases provided (TC1 = 299,999, TC2 = 300,000, and TC3 = 300,001) cover the critical boundary values around the condition.
TC1 tests just below the boundary (299,999),
TC2 tests exactly at the boundary (300,000),
TC3 tests just above the boundary (300,001).
Since the software incorrectly checks for TAS equal to 300,000, only TC2 will fail because the condition is exactly met and highlights the incorrect implementation of the decision logic.
NEW QUESTION # 102
Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.
Which of the following examples demonstrates this?
- A. Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.
- B. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.
- C. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.
- D. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Testing Quadrants model helps Agile teams by categorizing different types of tests and their purposes. This differentiation helps test managers explain the testing strategy to all stakeholders, ensuring everyone understands the scope and objectives of each test type. This model aids in planning, executing, and tracking testing activities across different quadrants, making it easier to align with stakeholders' expectations and project goals. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.1.7
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?
- A. Potentially endless loops
- B. Security vulnerabilities
- C. Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)
- D. Referencing a variable with an undefined value
Answer: C
Explanation:
Static analysis tools are software tools that examine the source code of a program without executing it. They can detect various types of issues, such as syntax errors, coding standards violations, security vulnerabilities, and potential bugs12. However, static analysis tools cannot identify issues that depend on the runtime behavior or performance of the program, such as very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)3. MTBF is a measure of the reliability of a system or component. It is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the number of failures. MTBF reflects how often a system or component fails during its expected lifetime. Static analysis tools cannot measure MTBF because they do not run the program or observe its failures. MTBF can only be estimated by dynamic testing, which involves executing the program under various conditions and collecting data on its failures4. Therefore, very low MTBF is an issue that cannot be identified by static analysis tools. The other options, such as potentially endless loops, referencing a variable with an undefined value, and security vulnerabilities, are issues that can be identified by static analysis tools. Static analysis tools can detect potentially endless loops by analyzing the control flow and data flow of the program and checking for conditions that may never become false5. Static analysis tools can detect referencing a variable with an undefined value by checking the scope and initialization of variables and reporting any use of uninitialized variables6. Static analysis tools can detect security vulnerabilities by checking for common patterns of insecure code, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting, and weak encryption. Reference = What Is Static Analysis? Static Code Analysis Tools - Perforce Software, How Static Code Analysis Works | Perforce, Static Code Analysis: Techniques, Top 5 Benefits & 3 Challenges, What is MTBF? Mean Time Between Failures Explained | Perforce, Static analysis tools - Software Testing MCQs - CareerRide, ISTQB_Chapter3 | Quizizz, [Static Code Analysis for Security Vulnerabilities | Perforce].
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?
- A. When acceptance tests need to be created.
- B. When a high level of test independence may be required.
- C. When a test automation approach needs to be determined.
- D. When the team dynamics need to be improved.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The whole team approach involves collaboration among all team members, including testers, developers, and business representatives, to achieve quality goals. However, this approach may not be suitable in situations where a high level of test independence is required. Test independence is essential in cases where unbiased testing is critical, such as in regulated environments or where high-risk systems are involved. This is because team members might unintentionally influence each other's work, leading to potential bias in testing outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 105
A document descnbes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified This document is a typical work product produced as part of:
- A. Test design.
- B. Test monitoring and control
- C. Test Implementation.
- D. Test analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Test implementation involves finalizing the test procedures, including the order of execution of test cases based on their dependencies, preconditions, and postconditions. This phase ensures that all necessary test scripts, test data, and test environments are ready for execution. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, test implementation is the phase where detailed test procedures are derived and documented, making it a critical step before actual test execution.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?
- A. Reduced test execution limes compared to manual testing.
- B. Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing
- C. Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing.
- D. Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts.
Answer: D
Explanation:
One of the common risks associated with test automation tools is the underestimation of the effort required to maintain test scripts. Test scripts can become outdated or broken due to changes in the application, requiring significant effort to update and maintain them. This risk is highlighted in the ISTQB CTFL syllabus under the discussion of the benefits and risks of test automation.
References:ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section on test tools and automation.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?
- A. Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.
- B. Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.
- C. Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution
- D. Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.
Answer: C
Explanation:
State testing techniques are a type of dynamic testing techniques that are based on the behavior of the system under test for different input conditions and events. Dynamic testing techniques require the system to be executed with test cases, whereas static testing techniques do not. Static testing techniques can be applied before the code is ready for execution, such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and static analysis. Static testing techniques can help find defects early in the development process, improve the quality of the code, and reduce the cost and effort of dynamic testing. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 281; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which ONE of the following work products TYPICALLY belongs to test execution?
- A. Automated test scripts used for test execution.
- B. Test logs that document the results of test execution.
- C. A list of test conditions prioritized during test analysis.
- D. A test plan that describes the test strategy and test objectives.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Test execution involves running test cases and documenting results. Test logs (A) provide evidence of executed tests, failures, and actual outcomes.
Automated test scripts (B) are part of test implementation, test plans (C) belong to test planning, and test conditions (D) are identified during test analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?
- A. Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities
- B. Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities
- C. Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities
- D. Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ISTQB fundamental test process consists of five main phases, as described in the ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.2, page 15:
Test planning and control: This phase involves defining the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, risks, and metrics, as well as monitoring and controlling the test activities and results throughout the test process.
Test analysis and design: This phase involves analyzing the test basis (such as requirements, specifications, or user stories) to identify test conditions (such as features, functions, or scenarios) that need to be tested, and designing test cases and test procedures (such as inputs, expected outcomes, and execution steps) to cover the test conditions. This phase also involves evaluating the testability of the test basis and the test items (such as software or system components), and selecting and implementing test techniques (such as equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, or state transition testing) to achieve the test objectives and optimize the test coverage and efficiency.
Test implementation and execution: This phase involves preparing the test environment (such as hardware, software, data, or tools) and testware (such as test cases, test procedures, test data, or test scripts) for test execution, and executing the test procedures or scripts according to the test plan and schedule. This phase also involves logging the outcome of test execution, comparing the actual results with the expected results, and reporting any discrepancies as incidents (such as defects, errors, or failures).
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting: This phase involves checking if the planned test activities have been completed and the exit criteria (such as quality, coverage, or risk levels) have been met, and reporting the test results and outcomes to the stakeholders. This phase also involves making recommendations for the release or acceptance decision based on the test results and outcomes, and identifying any residual risks (such as known defects or untested areas) that need to be addressed or mitigated.
Test closure activities: This phase involves finalizing and archiving the testware and test environment for future reuse, and evaluating the test process and the test project against the test objectives and the test plan. This phase also involves identifying any lessons learned and best practices, and communicating the findings and suggestions for improvement to the relevant parties.
Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.2, page 15; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 37-38; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 88, page 32.
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?
- A. The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.
- B. Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.
- C. A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.
- D. The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Theplanning phase of the review process(C) includes defining thereview's purpose, scope, and exit criteriato ensure alignment.Option Ais part of the defect management phase,Bhappens during individual preparation, andDtakes place in the review meeting.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which ONE of the following options is aPRODUCT riskand NOT aPROJECT risk?
- A. Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.
- B. Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.
- C. Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.
- D. Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Product risksare risks thatimpact the quality or functionality of the software, whereasproject risksaffect theprocess, resources, or timeline.
* (A) is correctbecause incorrect calculations impact software correctness.
* (B), (C), and (D) are project risksas they relate toteam coordination, staffing, and schedulingrather than software defects.
Identifyingproduct risksearlyimproves defect detection and ensures better coverage for high-risk areas.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?
- A. Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.
- B. The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are
- C. Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.
- D. Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct statement is B. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, the testing quadrants help to categorize tests based on their purpose and whether they are technology-facing or business-facing, and whether they support the team or critique the product. Quadrant Q2 includes tests that are business-facing and support the team, such as automated acceptance tests produced during Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) and Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD) .
Quadrant Q3 includes business-facing tests that critique the product, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing. These tests are typically manual and focus on evaluating the product from a user perspective, rather than being part of a continuous integration process.
Quadrant Q4 includes technology-facing tests that critique the product, such as performance tests, security tests, and other non-functional tests, which can be automated but are not related to unit tests produced during TDD .
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?
- A. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1
- B. S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
- C. S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4
- D. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0 (New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not fixed, it can be Re- opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed (S4). References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?
- A. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1
- B. S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
- C. S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4
- D. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0 (New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not fixed, it can be Re-opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed (S4). Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of the following statements is NOT true about Configuration management and software testing?
- A. Version controlled test ware increases the chances of finding defects in the software under test.
- B. Configuration management supports the build process, which is essential for delivering a test release into the test environment.
- C. When testers report defects, they need to reference version-controlled items.
- D. Configuration management helps maintain consistent versions of software artifacts.
Answer: A
Explanation:
While configuration management is crucial for maintaining consistent versions of software artifacts and supporting the build process, it does not directly increase the chances of finding defects in the software under test. Version-controlled test ware ensures that the correct versions of test cases and other test artifacts are used, but it is the quality and thoroughness of the tests that determine the effectiveness of defect detection.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.4
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which review type, also known as a "buddy check", is commonly used in Agile development?
- A. Walkthrough.
- B. Technical review.
- C. Inspection.
- D. Informal review.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Agile development, an informal review, often referred to as a "buddy check," is a common review type. Informal reviews are unstructured and involve a pair of colleagues reviewing each other's work to identify defects early and provide immediate feedback. This type of review is less formal than inspections or walkthroughs and is particularly suitable for Agile environments where rapid feedback and flexibility are essential.
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?
- A. All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find
- B. The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.
- C. Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process
- D. All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 118
Mark the correct sentences:
* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"
* A human mistake may produce a defect
* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it
* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure
* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes
- A. IV, V
- B. II, IV
- C. II, III, IV
- D. I, II
Answer: B
Explanation:
The question is about marking the correct sentences among the given statements related to defects, failures, and mistakes. According to the ISTQB glossary, the definitions of these terms are1:
Defect: A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function, e.g. an incorrect statement or data definition. A defect, if encountered during execution, may cause a failure of the component or system.
Failure: An event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits.
Mistake: A human action that produces an incorrect result.
Therefore, out of the five given statements, only two are correct, namely:
A human mistake may produce a defect: This is true, as a mistake is a source or cause of a defect, e.g. a programmer may make a mistake in writing a code statement, which results in a defect in the software component.
When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure: This is true, as a defect is a potential or actual cause of a failure, e.g. a defect in the software component may cause the system to fail to perform a required function when the defect is encountered during execution.
The other three statements are incorrect, namely:
Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures": This is false, as defects are not a result of environmental conditions, but of mistakes or other factors, and defects are not the same as failures, but rather the causes of failures.
A system will totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it: This is false, as a system may not necessarily fail completely or stop operating when a failure occurs, but may continue to operate with reduced functionality or performance, or with incorrect results.
Defects occur only as a result of technology changes: This is false, as defects can occur due to various reasons, not only technology changes, such as human mistakes, design flaws, requirement changes, hardware failures, etc.
Reference:
1: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms 4.0, 2023, available at ISTQB) and ASTQB).
NEW QUESTION # 119
Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:
What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting in the "Start" state and ending in the "End" state is 4. This is because there are 4 unique sequences of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting in the "Start" state and ending in the "End" state:
Start -> Bet -> End
Start -> Deal -> End
Start -> 1st Deal -> End
Start -> 2nd Deal -> End Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents.
NEW QUESTION # 120
......
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